A subject to deal is the same as obtaining a quit claim, is this correct?
In this thread
Investment Partners phlgirl stated they were not able to obtain many properties via this method because many homes were bought using an ARM.
I am curious why an ARM would be an issue?
If your holding onto the property for CF(in her case), couldn't you just switch the mortgage?
Or in my case were I am looking to flip properties would it matter since I will pay off the mortgage as soon as the property is flipped?
Also when you obtain a subject to deal, is the lender likely to enact their "due on sale" clause?
ATW, thank you for this thread. This is exactly the type of information someone who is just entering the field (like me) is looking for.
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